Latest Apr 05, 2026 Real CIPT Exam Dumps Questions Valid CIPT Dumps PDF
IAPP CIPT Exam Dumps - PDF Questions and Testing Engine
The Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT) certification exam is a globally recognized certification that focuses on the technical aspects of privacy and data protection. The IAPP (International Association of Privacy Professionals) offers this certification to individuals who are interested in demonstrating their knowledge and expertise in privacy technology. The CIPT certification exam is designed for IT professionals, engineers, software developers, security professionals, and other individuals who work with technology and want to specialize in privacy and data protection.
NEW QUESTION # 31
What is the main function of a breach response center?
- A. Detecting internal security attacks.
- B. Addressing privacy incidents.
- C. Providing training to internal constituencies.
- D. Interfacing with privacy regulators and governmental bodies.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The main function of a breach response center is to address privacy incidents by managing the response to data breaches and other security incidents. This includes identifying, containing, and mitigating the impact of breaches, as well as coordinating communication with affected parties and regulatory bodies.
References:
* IAPP CIPT Study Guide: Incident Response and Breach Management.
* IAPP Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT) Handbook: Section on Incident Management and Breach Response.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Granting data subjects the right to have data corrected, amended, or deleted describes?
- A. Use limitation.
- B. Accountability.
- C. Individual participation
- D. A security safeguard
Answer: C
Explanation:
The concept described in the question pertains to Individual Participation, which is a principle found in various data protection frameworks, such as the OECD Privacy Guidelines and the GDPR. Individual Participation refers to the rights provided to data subjects to participate in the process of managing their personal data. This includes rights such as accessing their data, correcting inaccuracies, and requesting the deletion of their data. These rights empower individuals to have a say in how their data is used and ensure that it remains accurate and up-to-date.
Reference:
OECD Privacy Guidelines, Principle 8: Individual Participation
GDPR, Articles 16 (Right to rectification) and 17 (Right to erasure)
NEW QUESTION # 33
How can a hacker gain control of a smartphone to perform remote audio and video surveillance?
- A. By accessing a phone's global positioning system satellite signal.
- B. By manipulating geographic information systems.
- C. By installing a roving bug on the phone.
- D. By performing cross-site scripting.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hackers can exploit various vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access to smartphones and perform remote surveillance. Here's how a roving bug can be used:
* Roving Bug Installation: A roving bug is a type of software that can be covertly installed on a smartphone to enable remote audio and video surveillance. This malicious software can activate the phone's microphone and camera without the user's knowledge.
* Unauthorized Access: The installation of such software can occur through various means, including phishing attacks, malicious apps, or exploiting vulnerabilities in the phone's operating system.
* Surveillance Capabilities: Once installed, the hacker can remotely control the phone to eavesdrop on
* conversations, capture video footage, and monitor the user's activities.
* Privacy Breach: This type of intrusion represents a significant privacy breach, as it allows continuous monitoring and recording of the user's private moments and conversations.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following functionalities can meet some of the General Data Protection Regulation's (GDPR's) Data Portability requirements for a social networking app designed for users in the EU?
- A. Allow users to download the content they have provided the app.
- B. Allow users to modify the data they provided the app.
- C. Allow users to delete the content they provided the app.
- D. Allow users to get a time-stamped list of what they have provided the app.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Allowing users to download the content they have provided to the app meets some of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) Data Portability requirements. GDPR mandates that individuals have the right to obtain and reuse their personal data across different services. By providing a functionality that enables users to download their data, the app facilitates this right, allowing users to easily transfer their information to other services if they choose. This capability directly addresses the data portability requirement specified in Article 20 of the GDPR, ensuring that users maintain control over their personal data. The IAPP documentation on GDPR compliance highlights data portability as a critical aspect of user rights under the regulation.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A jurisdiction requiring an organization to place a link on the website that allows a consumer to opt-out of sharing is an example of what type of requirement?
- A. Functional
- B. Use case
- C. Technical
- D. Operational
Answer: D
Explanation:
a jurisdiction requiring an organization to place a link on their website that allows consumers to opt-out of sharing their personal data is an example of an operational requirement. Operational requirements involve implementing specific processes or procedures in order to comply with legal or regulatory obligations.
NEW QUESTION # 36
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Chuck, a compliance auditor for a consulting firm focusing on healthcare clients, was required to travel to the client's office to perform an onsite review of the client's operations. He rented a car from Finley Motors upon arrival at the airport as so he could commute to and from the client's office. The car rental agreement was electronically signed by Chuck and included his name, address, driver's license, make/model of the car, billing rate, and additional details describing the rental transaction. On the second night, Chuck was caught by a red light camera not stopping at an intersection on his way to dinner. Chuck returned the car back to the car rental agency at the end week without mentioning the infraction and Finley Motors emailed a copy of the final receipt to the address on file.
Local law enforcement later reviewed the red light camera footage. As Finley Motors is the registered owner of the car, a notice was sent to them indicating the infraction and fine incurred. This notice included the license plate number, occurrence date and time, a photograph of the driver, and a web portal link to a video clip of the violation for further review. Finley Motors, however, was not responsible for the violation as they were not driving the car at the time and transferred the incident to AMP Payment Resources for further review. AMP Payment Resources identified Chuck as the driver based on the rental agreement he signed when picking up the car and then contacted Chuck directly through a written letter regarding the infraction to collect the fine.
After reviewing the incident through the AMP Payment Resources' web portal, Chuck paid the fine using his personal credit card. Two weeks later, Finley Motors sent Chuck an email promotion offering 10% off a future rental.
What is the most secure method Finley Motors should use to transmit Chuck's information to AMP Payment Resources?
- A. Certificate Authority (CA).
- B. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
- C. Transport Layer Security (TLS).
- D. Cloud file transfer services.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 37
What has been found to undermine the public key infrastructure system?
- A. Man-in-the-middle attacks.
- B. Browsers missing a copy of the certificate authority's public key.
- C. Disreputable certificate authorities.
- D. Inability to track abandoned keys.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Public key infrastructure (PKI) relies heavily on the trustworthiness of certificate authorities (CAs). These CAs are responsible for issuing and verifying digital certificates. If a CA is compromised or disreputable, the entire PKI system's integrity can be undermined because the certificates it issues can no longer be trusted. This can lead to a range of security issues, including the potential for man-in-the-middle attacks, as malicious actors could exploit compromised certificates to impersonate legitimate entities. Thus, maintaining reputable and secure CAs is critical to the PKI system's effectiveness.
NEW QUESTION # 38
What is the potential advantage of homomorphic encryption?
- A. Ciphertext size decreases as the security level increases.
- B. It allows greater security and faster processing times.
- C. Encrypted information can be analyzed without decrypting it first.
- D. It makes data impenetrable to attacks.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 39
SCENARIO
Kyle is a new security compliance manager who will be responsible for coordinating and executing controls to ensure compliance with the company's information security policy and industry standards. Kyle is also new to the company, where collaboration is a core value. On his first day of new-hire orientation, Kyle's schedule included participating in meetings and observing work in the IT and compliance departments.
Kyle spent the morning in the IT department, where the CIO welcomed him and explained that her department was responsible for IT governance. The CIO and Kyle engaged in a conversation about the importance of identifying meaningful IT governance metrics. Following their conversation, the CIO introduced Kyle to Ted and Barney. Ted is implementing a plan to encrypt data at the transportation level of the organization's wireless network. Kyle would need to get up to speed on the project and suggest ways to monitor effectiveness once the implementation was complete. Barney explained that his short-term goals are to establish rules governing where data can be placed and to minimize the use of offline data storage.
Kyle spent the afternoon with Jill, a compliance specialist, and learned that she was exploring an initiative for a compliance program to follow self-regulatory privacy principles. Thanks to a recent internship, Kyle had some experience in this area and knew where Jill could find some support. Jill also shared results of the company's privacy risk assessment, noting that the secondary use of personal information was considered a high risk.
By the end of the day, Kyle was very excited about his new job and his new company. In fact, he learned about an open position for someone with strong qualifications and experience with access privileges, project standards board approval processes, and application-level obligations, and couldn't wait to recommend his friend Ben who would be perfect for the job.
Which data practice is Barney most likely focused on improving?
- A. Sharing
- B. Retention.
- C. Deletion
- D. Inventory.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 40
Properly configured databases and well-written website codes are the best protection against what online threat?
- A. Malware execution.
- B. SQL injection.
- C. System modification.
- D. Pharming.
Answer: B
Explanation:
SQL injection is a common online threat that targets databases through malicious SQL queries, potentially allowing attackers to access and manipulate database content. Properly configured databases and well-written website code are essential defenses against SQL injection attacks. Ensuring that databases are configured with least privilege access, using parameterized queries, and employing input validation are standard best practices to protect against SQL injection. Pharming (A), malware execution (C), and system modification (D) are different types of threats that require different mitigation strategies. The emphasis on securing databases and writing secure code to prevent SQL injection is well-documented in security guidelines from the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) and other cybersecurity frameworks referenced by the IAPP.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following is the least effective privacy preserving practice in the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
- A. Reviewing the code against Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top 10 Security Risks.
- B. Conducting privacy threat modeling for the use-case.
- C. Following secure and privacy coding standards in the development.
- D. Developing data flow modeling to identify sources and destinations of sensitive data.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The options provided relate to different privacy-preserving practices in the SDLC. The goal is to identify the least effective one for privacy preservation.
* Option A: Conducting privacy threat modeling for the use-case is essential as it helps identify potential
* privacy threats early in the SDLC. This is a proactive measure and is highly effective.
* Option B: Following secure and privacy coding standards ensures that the code adheres to best practices for security and privacy, which is crucial for preventing vulnerabilities.
* Option C: Developing data flow modeling to identify sources and destinations of sensitive data is critical for understanding and protecting sensitive information throughout the system.
* Option D: Reviewing the code against OWASP Top 10 Security Risks is more focused on security vulnerabilities rather than privacy-specific issues. While it is a critical practice for overall system security, it does not specifically address privacy concerns as comprehensively as the other options.
References:
* IAPP CIPT Study Guide
* OWASP Top 10 Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 42
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Jordan just joined a fitness-tracker start-up based in California, USA, as its first Information Privacy and Security Officer. The company is quickly growing its business but does not sell any of the fitness trackers itself. Instead, it relies on a distribution network of third-party retailers in all major countries. Despite not having any stores, the company has a 78% market share in the EU. It has a website presenting the company and products, and a member section where customers can access their information. Only the email address and physical address need to be provided as part of the registration process in order to customize the site to the user's region and country. There is also a newsletter sent every month to all members featuring fitness tips, nutrition advice, product spotlights from partner companies based on user behavior and preferences.
Jordan says the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) does not apply to the company. He says the company is not established in the EU, nor does it have a processor in the region. Furthermore, it does not do any "offering goods or services" in the EU since it does not do any marketing there, nor sell to consumers directly. Jordan argues that it is the customers who chose to buy the products on their own initiative and there is no "offering" from the company.
The fitness trackers incorporate advanced features such as sleep tracking, GPS tracking, heart rate monitoring. wireless syncing, calorie-counting and step-tracking. The watch must be paired with either a smartphone or a computer in order to collect data on sleep levels, heart rates, etc. All information from the device must be sent to the company's servers in order to be processed, and then the results are sent to the smartphone or computer. Jordan argues that there is no personal information involved since the company does not collect banking or social security information.
Based on the current features of the fitness watch, what would you recommend be implemented into each device in order to most effectively ensure privacy?
- A. Persistent unique identifier.
- B. Randomized MAC address.
- C. A2DP Bluetooth profile.
- D. Hashing.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 43
What is the main privacy threat posed by Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)?
- A. An individual can use an RFID receiver to engage in video surveillance.
- B. An individual can tap mobile phone communications.
- C. An individual with an RFID receiver can track people or consumer products.
- D. An individual can scramble computer transmissions in weapons systems.
Answer: C
Explanation:
RFID technology uses electromagnetic fields to automatically identify and track tags attached to objects. The main privacy threat posed by RFID is that it can be used to track people or consumer products without their knowledge or consent. This occurs because RFID tags can be read from a distance without the individual's awareness, potentially revealing their location or other personal information. This type of tracking can lead to significant privacy invasions. According to the IAPP, understanding and mitigating such privacy risks is essential for ensuring the responsible use of RFID technology in various applications.
NEW QUESTION # 44
SCENARIO
It should be the most secure location housing data in all of Europe, if not the world. The Global Finance Data Collective (GFDC) stores financial information and other types of client data from large banks, insurance companies, multinational corporations and governmental agencies. After a long climb on a mountain road that leads only to the facility, you arrive at the security booth. Your credentials are checked and checked again by the guard to visually verify that you are the person pictured on your passport and national identification card.
You are led down a long corridor with server rooms on each side, secured by combination locks built into the doors. You climb a flight of stairs and are led into an office that is lighted brilliantly by skylights where the GFDC Director of Security, Dr. Monique Batch, greets you. On the far wall you notice a bank of video screens showing different rooms in the facility. At the far end, several screens show different sections of the road up the mountain Dr. Batch explains once again your mission. As a data security auditor and consultant, it is a dream assignment: The GFDC does not want simply adequate controls, but the best and most effective security that current technologies allow.
"We were hacked twice last year," Dr. Batch says, "and although only a small number of records were stolen, the bad press impacted our business. Our clients count on us to provide security that is nothing short of impenetrable and to do so quietly. We hope to never make the news again." She notes that it is also essential that the facility is in compliance with all relevant security regulations and standards.
You have been asked to verify compliance as well as to evaluate all current security controls and security measures, including data encryption methods, authentication controls and the safest methods for transferring data into and out of the facility. As you prepare to begin your analysis, you find yourself considering an intriguing question: Can these people be sure that I am who I say I am?
You are shown to the office made available to you and are provided with system login information, including the name of the wireless network and a wireless key. Still pondering, you attempt to pull up the facility's wireless network, but no networks appear in the wireless list. When you search for the wireless network by name, however it is readily found.
What type of wireless network does GFDC seem to employ?
- A. A reluctant network.
- B. A user verified network.
- C. A hidden network.
- D. A wireless mesh network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://help.gnome.org/users/gnome-help/stable/net-wireless-hidden.html.en
NEW QUESTION # 45
What is the name of an alternative technique to counter the reduction in use of third-party cookies, where web publishers may consider utilizing data cached by a browser and returned with a subsequent request from the same resource to track unique users?
- A. Browser fingerprinting.
- B. Canvas fingerprinting.
- C. Web beacon tracking.
- D. Entity tagging.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Browser fingerprinting is a technique used to track users by collecting information about their browser and device characteristics, which are then used to create a unique identifier. This technique can be employed as an alternative to third-party cookies and can track users across different sessions and sites.
NEW QUESTION # 46
SCENARIO
Tom looked forward to starting his new position with a U.S -based automobile leasing company (New Company), now operating in 32 states. New Company was recently formed through the merger of two prominent players, one from the eastern region (East Company) and one from the western region (West Company). Tom, a Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT), is New Company's first Information Privacy and Security Officer. He met today with Dick from East Company, and Harry, from West Company.
Dick and Harry are veteran senior information privacy and security professionals at their respective companies, and continue to lead the east and west divisions of New Company. The purpose of the meeting was to conduct a SWOT (strengths/weaknesses/opportunities/threats) analysis for New Company. Their SWOT analysis conclusions are summarized below.
Dick was enthusiastic about an opportunity for the New Company to reduce costs and increase computing power and flexibility through cloud services. East Company had been contemplating moving to the cloud, but West Company already had a vendor that was providing it with software-as-a-service (SaaS). Dick was looking forward to extending this service to the eastern region. Harry noted that this was a threat as well, because West Company had to rely on the third party to protect its data.
Tom mentioned that neither of the legacy companies had sufficient data storage space to meet the projected growth of New Company, which he saw as a weakness. Tom stated that one of the team's first projects would be to construct a consolidated New Company data warehouse. Tom would personally lead this project and would be held accountable if information was modified during transmission to or during storage in the new data warehouse.
Tom, Dick and Harry agreed that employee network access could be considered both a strength and a weakness. East Company and West Company had strong performance records in this regard; both had robust network access controls that were working as designed. However, during a projected year-long transition period, New Company employees would need to be able to connect to a New Company network while retaining access to the East Company and West Company networks.
When employees are working remotely, they usually connect to a Wi-Fi network. What should Harry advise for maintaining company security in this situation?
- A. Hiding wireless service set identifiers (SSID).
- B. Retaining the password assigned by the network.
- C. Employing Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption.
- D. Using tokens sent through HTTP sites to verify user identity.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the scenario, New Company needs to maintain security for employees connecting remotely, primarily over Wi-Fi networks.
Detailed Explanation:
* Option A (Hiding SSID): Hiding the SSID (Service Set Identifier) can provide a basic level of security by making the network less visible to casual users. While not foolproof, it can deter unauthorized access to some extent.
* Option B (Retaining assigned password): Retaining the default or assigned password is not advisable as these are often well-known and can easily be breached. Changing to strong, unique passwords is crucial.
* Option C (WEP Encryption): Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is outdated and has significant security vulnerabilities. It is not recommended for securing modern networks.
* Option D (Tokens through HTTP): Using tokens for verification is important, but sending them through HTTP (an unsecured protocol) is not safe. HTTPS should be used instead.
References:
* Best practices for Wi-Fi security, including the use of WPA2 or WPA3 encryption, which offer much stronger security compared to WEP.
* The importance of using strong, unique passwords for network security.
* Recommendations for network security from organizations such as NIST and ISO.
Conclusion: Hiding the wireless SSID (Option A) is a basic security measure that can help improve the security of Wi-Fi networks used by employees connecting remotely, though it should be complemented with stronger measures such as WPA2/WPA3 encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 47
After downloading and loading a mobile app, the user is presented with an account registration page requesting the user to provide certain personal details. Two statements are also displayed on the same page along with a box for the user to check to indicate their confirmation:
Statement 1 reads: "Please check this box to confirm you have read and accept the terms and conditions of the end user license agreement" and includes a hyperlink to the terms and conditions.
Statement 2 reads: "Please check this box to confirm you have read and understood the privacy notice" and includes a hyperlink to the privacy notice.
Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), what lawful basis would you primarily except the privacy notice to refer to?
- A. Vital interests.
- B. Legal obligation.
- C. Legitimate interests.
- D. Consent.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Consent (A): Under GDPR, consent is required when processing personal data based on the user's agreement, particularly when accepting terms and conditions and privacy notices. Reference: GDPR Article 6(1)(a).
Vital interests (B): This lawful basis is used in emergency situations where processing is necessary to protect someone's life. Reference: GDPR Article 6(1)(d).
Legal obligation (C): This basis is used when processing is necessary to comply with the law. Reference:
GDPR Article 6(1)(c).
Legitimate interests (D): While legitimate interests can be a lawful basis, the primary basis for the scenario described involving explicit user confirmation is consent. Reference: GDPR Recital 47, Article 6(1)(f).
NEW QUESTION # 48
Ivan is a nurse for a home healthcare service provider in the US. The company has implemented a mobile application which Ivan uses to record a patient's vital statistics and access a patient's health care records during home visits. During one visitj^van is unable to access the health care application to record the patient's vitals. He instead records the information on his mobile phone's note-taking application to enter the data in the health care application the next time it is accessible. What would be the best course of action by the IT department to ensure the data is protected on his device?
- A. Complete a SWOT analysis exercise on the mobile application to identify what caused the application to be inaccessible and remediate any issues.
- B. Adopt mobile platform standards to ensure that only mobile devices that support encryption capabilities are used.
- C. Provide all healthcare employees with mandatory annual security awareness training with a focus on the health information protection.
- D. Implement Mobile Device Management (MDM) to enforce company security policies and configuration settings.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Problem Identification: Recording patient data on a mobile phone's note-taking application poses a significant privacy risk.
Solution: Mobile Device Management (MDM) can enforce security policies, such as encryption, secure app installation, and remote wiping of data.
Benefits: MDM ensures that all devices comply with the organization's security standards, thereby protecting sensitive health information.
References: IAPP CIPT Study Guide, Section on Mobile Device Security and Management.
NEW QUESTION # 49
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Chuck, a compliance auditor for a consulting firm focusing on healthcare clients, was required to travel to the client's office to perform an onsite review of the client's operations. He rented a car from Finley Motors upon arrival at the airport as so he could commute to and from the client's office. The car rental agreement was electronically signed by Chuck and included his name, address, driver's license, make/model of the car, billing rate, and additional details describing the rental transaction. On the second night, Chuck was caught by a red light camera not stopping at an intersection on his way to dinner. Chuck returned the car back to the car rental agency at the end week without mentioning the infraction and Finley Motors emailed a copy of the final receipt to the address on file.
Local law enforcement later reviewed the red light camera footage. As Finley Motors is the registered owner of the car, a notice was sent to them indicating the infraction and fine incurred. This notice included the license plate number, occurrence date and time, a photograph of the driver, and a web portal link to a video clip of the violation for further review. Finley Motors, however, was not responsible for the violation as they were not driving the car at the time and transferred the incident to AMP Payment Resources for further review. AMP Payment Resources identified Chuck as the driver based on the rental agreement he signed when picking up the car and then contacted Chuck directly through a written letter regarding the infraction to collect the fine.
After reviewing the incident through the AMP Payment Resources' web portal, Chuck paid the fine using his personal credit card. Two weeks later, Finley Motors sent Chuck an email promotion offering 10% off a future rental.
What is the most secure method Finley Motors should use to transmit Chuck's information to AMP Payment Resources?
- A. Certificate Authority (CA).
- B. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
- C. Transport Layer Security (TLS).
- D. Cloud file transfer services.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is the most secure method for transmitting data over a network. It encrypts data during transfer, ensuring that personal information remains confidential and protected from interception or tampering by unauthorized parties. In this scenario, using TLS to transmit Chuck's information to AMP Payment Resources would help secure the data against potential breaches. The IAPP emphasizes the importance of using strong encryption protocols like TLS to safeguard personal data during transmission.
NEW QUESTION # 50
At which stage should the data privacy and IT teams be engaged to maximize their contributions to the secure development of the data life cycle when developing an online marketing platform?
- A. Security testing
- B. Design and coding
- C. Before application release
- D. Requirement gathering
Answer: D
Explanation:
CIPT and Privacy by Design emphasize involving privacy and IT teams at the earliest stage possible:
# During requirements gathering
At this early stage, teams can:
* Define privacy requirements
* Apply purpose limitation
* Determine data minimization needs
* Shape architecture for privacy by design
* Identify risks early
* Reduce costly redesign later
* Ensure compliance with laws before design begins
Industry frameworks (NIST SDLC, ISO/IEC 27034, PbD) confirm this "shift left" approach.
Why other options are too late:
* B: Design/coding is mid-stage; some privacy protections may be harder to integrate.
* C: Security testing is late and cannot fix foundational design flaws.
* D: Before release is far too late - violates PbD principles.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A user who owns a resource wants to give other individuals access to the resource. What control would apply?
- A. Role-based access controls.
- B. Mandatory access control.
- C. Context of authority controls.
- D. Discretionary access control.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 52
A developer is designing a new system that allows an organization's helpdesk to remotely connect into the device of the individual to provide support Which of the following will be a privacy technologist's primary concern"?
- A. Geo-tagging
- B. Geolocation
- C. Geofencing
- D. Geo-tracking
Answer: B
Explanation:
a privacy technologist's primary concern when designing a new system that allows an organization's helpdesk to remotely connect into the device of the individual to provide support would be geolocation.
NEW QUESTION # 53
What would be an example of an organization transferring the risks associated with a data breach?
- A. Encrypting sensitive personal data during collection and storage
- B. Purchasing insurance to cover the organization in case of a breach.
- C. Using a third-party service to process credit card transactions.
- D. Applying industry standard data handling practices to the organization' practices.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 54
Value sensitive design focuses on which of the following?
- A. Confidentiality and integrity.
- B. Consent and human rights.
- C. Quality and benefit.
- D. Ethics and morality.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Value sensitive design (VSD) is a theoretically grounded approach to the design of technology that accounts for human values in a principled and comprehensive manner1. It brings human values to the forefront of the technical design process2.
NEW QUESTION # 55
An organization is launching a new online subscription-based publication. As the service is not aimed at children, users are asked for their date of birth as part of the of the sign-up process. The privacy technologist suggests it may be more appropriate ask if an individual is over 18 rather than requiring they provide a date of birth. What kind of threat is the privacy technologist concerned about?
- A. Identification.
- B. Minimization.
- C. Interference.
- D. Insecurity.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data minimization is a principle of data protection that dictates only collecting personal data that is necessary for the specified purpose. By asking if an individual is over 18, rather than collecting their full date of birth, the organization adheres to the principle of data minimization, reducing the amount of personal information collected and thereby lowering the risk of identification and misuse of personal data. This approach aligns with the principles set forth in data protection regulations such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR).
Reference:
GDPR Article 5(1)(c) - Data minimization principle.
NEW QUESTION # 56
......
IAPP CIPT (Certified Information Privacy Technologist) Exam is a certification program designed for professionals who are seeking to demonstrate their knowledge and expertise in the field of information privacy technology. Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT) certification is offered by the International Association of Privacy Professionals (IAPP), which is a non-profit organization that is dedicated to promoting privacy practices across the globe. With the increasing importance of privacy in today's digital age, the CIPT certification is becoming increasingly relevant for professionals who work with personal data.
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