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NEW QUESTION # 70
A security analyst is validating a particular finding that was reported in a web application vulnerability scan to make sure it is not a false positive. The security analyst uses the snippet below:
Which of the following vulnerability types is the security analyst validating?
- A. Directory traversal
- B. XXE
- C. SSRF
- D. XSS
Answer: D
Explanation:
XSS (cross-site scripting) is the vulnerability type that the security analyst is validating, as the snippet shows an attempt to inject a script tag into the web application. XSS is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary JavaScript code in the browser of another user who visits the vulnerable website.
XSS can be used to perform various malicious actions, such as stealing cookies, session hijacking, phishing, or defacing websites. The other vulnerability types are not relevant to the snippet, as they involve different kinds of attacks. Directory traversal is an attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories that are outside of the web root folder. XXE (XML external entity) injection is an attack that allows an attacker to interfere with an application's processing of XML data, and potentially access files or systems. SSRF (server-side request forgery) is an attack that allows an attacker to induce the server-side application to make requests to an unintended location. Official References:
https://portswigger.net/web-security/xxe
https://portswigger.net/web-security/ssrf
https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/Server_Side_Request_Forgery_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet.htm
NEW QUESTION # 71
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
- A. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
- B. Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS
- C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
- D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header
Answer: A
Explanation:
The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame.
NEW QUESTION # 72
The Chief Information Security Officer wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are used that increase the risk to the organization. Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk?
- A. Enable SSO to the cloud applications
- B. Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement
- C. Deploy an API gateway
- D. Configure MFA with strict access
Answer: B
Explanation:
A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a tool that can help reduce the risk of shadow IT in the enterprise by providing visibility and control over cloud applications and services. A CASB can enable policy enforcement by blocking unauthorized or risky cloud applications, enforcing data loss prevention rules, encrypting sensitive data, and detecting anomalous user behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following phases of the Cyber Kill Chain involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target?
- A. Exploitation
- B. Delivery
- C. Command and control
- D. Actions on objectives
Answer: C
Explanation:
Command and control (C2) is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 enables the adversary to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels. C2 allows the adversary to maintain persistence, exfiltrate data, execute commands, deliver payloads, or spread to other systems or networks.
NEW QUESTION # 74
An analyst investigated a website and produced the following:
Which of the following syntaxes did the analyst use to discover the application versions on this vulnerable website?
- A. nmap -sS -T4 -F insecure.org
- B. nmap -o insecure.org
- C. nmap -sV -T4 -F insecure.org
- D. nmap -A insecure.org
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 75
An organization announces that all employees will need to work remotely for an extended period of time. All employees will be provided with a laptop and supported hardware to facilitate this requirement. The organization asks the information security division to reduce the risk during this time. Which of the following is a technical control that will reduce the risk of data loss if a laptop is lost or stolen?
- A. Requiring the screen to be locked after five minutes of inactivity
- B. Requiring the use of the corporate VPN
- C. Requiring full disk encryption
- D. Requiring the laptop to be locked in a cabinet when not in use
Answer: C
Explanation:
Full disk encryption (FDE) is a technical control that encrypts all the data on a disk drive, including the operating system and applications. FDE prevents unauthorized access to the data if the disk drive is lost or stolen, as it requires a password or key to decrypt the data. FDE can be implemented using software or hardware solutions and can protect data at rest on laptops and other devices. The other options are not technical controls or do not reduce the risk of data loss if a laptop is lost or stolen. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 10; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/bitlocker/bitlocker-overview
NEW QUESTION # 76
During an incident, some loCs of possible ransomware contamination were found in a group of servers in a segment of the network. Which of the following steps should be taken next?
- A. Remediation
- B. Preservation
- C. Reimaging
- D. Isolation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Isolation is the first step to take after detecting some indicators of compromise (IoCs) of possible ransomware contamination. Isolation prevents the ransomware from spreading to other servers or segments of the network, and allows the security team to investigate and contain the incident. Isolation can be done by disconnecting the infected servers from the network, blocking the malicious traffic, or applying firewall rules12.
References: 10 Things You Should Do After a Ransomware Attack, How to Recover from a Ransomware Attack: A Step-by-Step Guide
NEW QUESTION # 77
An organization recently changed its BC and DR plans. Which of the following would best allow for the incident response team to test the changes without any impact to the business?
- A. Perform a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios.
- B. Migrate active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location.
- C. Simulate an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center.
- D. Compare the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Performing a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios is the best way to test the changes to the BC and DR plans without any impact to the business, as it is a low-cost and low-risk method of exercising the plans and identifying any gaps or issues. A tabletop drill is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves gathering key personnel from different departments and roles and discussing how they would respond to a hypothetical incident scenario. A tabletop drill does not involve any actual simulation or disruption of the systems or processes, but rather relies on verbal communication and documentation review. A tabletop drill can help to ensure that everyone is familiar with the BC/DR plans, that the plans reflect the current state of the organization, and that the plans are consistent and coordinated across different functions. The other options are not as suitable as performing a tabletop drill, as they involve more cost, risk, or impact to the business. Simulating an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves creating an actual disruption or outage of a critical system or process, and observing how the organization responds and recovers. This type of exercise can provide a realistic assessment of the BC/DR capabilities, but it can also cause significant impact to the business operations, customers, and reputation. Migrating active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves switching over from one system or site to another, and verifying that the backup system or site can support the normal operations. This type of exercise can help to validate the functionality and performance of the backup system or site, but it can also incur high costs, complexity, and potential errors or failures. Comparing the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents is a type of BC/DR activity that involves reviewing past experiences and outcomes, and identifying best practices or improvement opportunities. This activity can help to update and refine the BC/DR plans, but it does not test or validate them in a simulated or actual scenario
NEW QUESTION # 78
A company brings in a consultant to make improvements to its website. After the consultant leaves. a web developer notices unusual activity on the website and submits a suspicious file containing the following code to the security team:
Which of the following did the consultant do?
- A. Implemented clickjacking
- B. Patched the web server
- C. Implemented privilege escalation
- D. Implanted a backdoor
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Implanted a backdoor.
A backdoor is a method that allows an unauthorized user to access a system or network without the permission or knowledge of the owner. A backdoor can be installed by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by physically modifying the hardware or firmware of the device. A backdoor can be used for various malicious purposes, such as stealing data, installing malware, executing commands, or taking control of the system.
In this case, the consultant implanted a backdoor in the website by using an HTML and PHP code snippet that displays an image of a shutdown button and an alert message that says "Exit". However, the code also echoes the remote address of the server, which means that it sends the IP address of the visitor to the attacker. This way, the attacker can identify and target the visitors of the website and use their IP addresses to launch further attacks or gain access to their devices.
The code snippet is an example of a clickjacking attack, which is a type of interface-based attack that tricks a user into clicking on a hidden or disguised element on a webpage. However, clickjacking is not the main goal of the consultant, but rather a means to implant the backdoor. Therefore, option C is incorrect.
Option B is also incorrect because privilege escalation is an attack technique that allows an attacker to gain higher or more permissions than they are supposed to have on a system or network. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by abusing misconfigurations or weak access controls. However, there is no evidence that the consultant implemented privilege escalation on the website or gained any elevated privileges.
Option D is also incorrect because patching is a process of applying updates to software to fix errors, improve performance, or enhance security. Patching can prevent or mitigate various types of attacks, such as exploits, malware infections, or denial-of-service attacks. However, there is no indication that the consultant patched the web server or improved its security in any way.
References:
1 What Is a Backdoor & How to Prevent Backdoor Attacks (2023)
2 What is Clickjacking? Tutorial & Examples | Web Security Academy
3 What Is Privilege Escalation and How It Relates to Web Security | Acunetix
4 What Is Patching? | Best Practices For Patch Management - cWatch Blog
NEW QUESTION # 79
A security analyst discovers an LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. Which of the following patterns can the security analyst use to search the web server
logs for evidence of exploitation of that particular vulnerability?
- A. /etc/ shadow
- B. cat /proc/self/
- C. ; printenv
- D. curl localhost
Answer: A
Explanation:
/etc/shadow is the pattern that the security analyst can use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of the LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. LFI stands for Local File Inclusion, which is a vulnerability that allows an attacker to include local files on the web server into the output of a web application. LFI can be exploited to extract sensitive information from the web server, such as configuration files, passwords, or source code. The /etc/shadow file is a file that stores the encrypted passwords of all users on a Linux system. If an attacker can exploit the LFI vulnerability to include this file into the web application output, they can obtain the credentials of the users on the web server. Therefore, the security analyst can look for /etc/shadow in the request line of the web server logs to see if any attacker has attempted or succeeded in exploiting the LFI vulnerability. Official Reference:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
NEW QUESTION # 80
A security audit for unsecured network services was conducted, and the following output was generated:
Which of the following services should the security team investigate further? (Select two).
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1 The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service.
Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team: port 23 and port 636.
Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution. Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23 Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections.
Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following concepts is using an API to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system an example of?
- A. Automation
- B. Data enrichment
- C. Command and control
- D. Single sign-on
Answer: A
Explanation:
Automation is the best concept to describe the example, as it reflects the use of technology to perform tasks or processes without human intervention. Automation can help to improve efficiency, accuracy, consistency, and scalability of various operations, such as identity and access management (IAM). IAM is a security framework that enables organizations to manage the identities and access rights of users and devices across different systems and applications.
IAM can help to ensure that only authorized users and devices can access the appropriate resources at the appropriate time and for the appropriate purpose. IAM can involve various tasks or processes, such as authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, auditing, or reporting. Automation can help to simplify and streamline these tasks or processes by using software tools or scripts that can execute predefined actions or workflows based on certain triggers or conditions. For example, automation can help to create, update, or delete user accounts in bulk based on a file or a database, rather than manually entering or modifying each account individually. The example in the question shows that an API is used to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system. An API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and exchange data with each other. An API can help to enable automation by providing a standardized and consistent way to access and manipulate data or functionality of a software component or system. The example in the question shows that an API is used to automate the process of inserting bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system, rather than manually entering each request one by one. The other options are not correct, as they describe different concepts or techniques. Command and control is a term that refers to the ability of an attacker to remotely control a compromised system or device, such as using malware or backdoors. Command and control is not related to what is described in the example. Data enrichment is a term that refers to the process of enhancing or augmenting existing data with additional information from external sources, such as adding demographic or behavioral attributes to customer profiles. Data enrichment is not related to what is described in the example. Single sign-on is a term that refers to an authentication method that allows users to access multiple systems or applications with one set of credentials, such as using a single username and password for different websites or services. Single sign-on is not related to what is described in the example.
NEW QUESTION # 82
A security analyst is responding to an indent that involves a malicious attack on a network. Data closet. Which of the following best explains how are analyst should properly document the incident?
- A. Create a full diagram of the network infrastructure
- B. Take photos of the impacted items
- C. Back up the configuration file for alt network devices
- D. Record and validate each connection
Answer: B
Explanation:
When documenting a physical incident in a network data closet, taking photos provides a clear and immediate record of the situation, which is essential for thorough incident documentation and subsequent investigation.
Proper documentation of an incident in a data closet should include taking photos of the impacted items. This provides visual evidence and helps in understanding the physical context of the incident, which is crucial for a thorough investigation. Backing up configuration files, recording connections, and creating network diagrams, while important, are not the primary means of documenting the physical aspects of an incident.
NEW QUESTION # 83
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:
Which of the following should be remediated first?
- A. RFI
- B. Code injection
- C. SQL injection
- D. XSS
Answer: C
Explanation:
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References:
Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web ..., Command line user interface Arachni/arachni Wiki GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode
NEW QUESTION # 84
A threat hunter seeks to identify new persistence mechanisms installed in an organization's environment. In collecting scheduled tasks from all enterprise workstations, the following host details are aggregated:
Which of the following actions should the hunter perform first based on the details above?
- A. Change the account that runs the -caskhw. exe scheduled task
- B. Scan the enterprise to identify other systems with taskhw.exe present
- C. Acquire a copy of taskhw.exe from the impacted host
- D. Perform a public search for malware reports on taskhw.exe.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The first step should be to perform a public search for malware reports on taskhw.exe, as this file is suspicious for several reasons: it is located in a non-standard path, it has a high CPU usage, it is signed by an unknown entity, and it is only present on one host. A public search can help to determine if this file is a known malware or a legitimate program. If it is malware, the hunter can then take appropriate actions to remove it and prevent further damage. The other options are either premature or ineffective, as they do not provide enough information to assess the threat level of taskhw.exe. References: Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA, taskhw.exe Windows process - What is it? - file.net, Taskhostw.exe - What Is Taskhostw.exe & Is It Malware? - MalwareTips Forums
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following is the most important factor to ensure accurate incident response reporting?
- A. A guideline for regulatory reporting
- B. A well-defined timeline of the events
- C. A well-developed executive summary
- D. Logs from the impacted system
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A well-defined timeline of the events is the most important factor to ensure accurate incident response reporting, as it provides a clear and chronological account of what happened, when it happened, who was involved, and what actions were taken. A timeline helps to identify the root cause of the incident, the impact and scope of the damage, the effectiveness of the response, and the lessons learned for future improvement. A timeline also helps to communicate the incident to relevant stakeholders, such as management, legal, regulatory, or media entities. The other factors are also important for incident response reporting, but they are not as essential as a well-defined timeline. Official References:
https://www.ibm.com/topics/incident-response
https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/incident-response/incident-response-steps/
NEW QUESTION # 86
A security analyst is trying to identify anomalies on the network routing. Which of the following functions can the analyst use on a shell script to achieve the objective most accurately?
- A. function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" }
- B. function x() { info=$(dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" }
- C. function x() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F "/" 'END{print $5}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
- D. function x() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
Answer: B
Explanation:
The function that can be used on a shell script to identify anomalies on the network routing most accurately is:
function x() { info=(dig(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" } This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any routing anomalies or inconsistencies
NEW QUESTION # 87
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